In my mind, the easiest way to understand the over-leverage of the U.S. household is to look at the ratio of consumption to GDP. This number is essentially the amount of U.S. income devoted to consumption as opposed to investment or exports. The higher is this number the more households have borrowed to support their consumption.
The share of income allocated to consumption in the United States has risen from 62 percent in 1980 to over 70 percent in 2008. Over 40 percent of the rise has occurred since 2000. This level of consumption is way too high. It is high by historical post-war U.S. standards and it is high by contemporary international standards.
Take a look at the inset box. Of the major industrial economies, the United Kingdom has the highest ratio. At 64 percent of GDP, however, the United Kingdom has only reached levels of consumption similar to that of the early 1980s United States.
To make a stronger link with leverage, one can glean similar insights from the current account deficit of the United States. Over exactly the same period that consumption as a share of GDP has been rising, the current account deficit of the United States has been falling. The match is close even to the point of matching the three percentage point jump since 2000. The current account deficit represents real indebtedness to foreign economies. It does not matter whether this debt is incurred because oil prices have risen or because we buy a lot of TV’s.
The share of income allocated to consumption in the United States has risen from 62 percent in 1980 to over 70 percent in 2008. Over 40 percent of the rise has occurred since 2000. This level of consumption is way too high. It is high by historical post-war U.S. standards and it is high by contemporary international standards.
The share of consumption to GDP in the United States must fall and it seems that we are, finally, at the turning point. There are only two ways for this adjustment to occur: either consumption must fall or the other components of GDP must rise.
How far does consumption have to fall? It depends on how far the ratio of consumption to GDP must move. I believe the ratio is likely to return to 1980 levels but a strong case can be made that the ratio need only fall back to the level of the late 1990s.
Assuming no growth in other components of GDP, consumption would have to fall 3.2 percent per year to bring the ratio back to its 2000 level within five years. For the ratio of consumption to GDP to fall back to its 1980’s level within five years, consumption would have to fall 7.4 percent per year. If we allow 10 years for the ratio to return to its 1980’s level, consumption only needs to fall 3.2 percent per year.
These falls are huge and well beyond anything in the modern historical record for industrial economies with the possible exception of the Great Depression. Only Argentina (and perhaps some of the Asians during the Asian Financial Crisis, though I have not checked) suffered falls of this magnitude. In 2001 and 2001, Argentina experienced repeated double-digit falls in consumption.
Of course the consumption numbers are all relative to the other components of GDP. Consumption does not have to fall as much if other parts of the NIPA accounts are growing. However, because consumption has such a large share of output, the other components would have to grow very fast indeed to keep consumption from having to fall at all. In addition, I have trouble imagining components like investment expanding when consumption is falling at these rates.
These numbers are scary.
And these numbers are just as scary as when I first posted this idea. The U.S. consumer has a long way to go and I do not believe we can have a sustainable recovery before they have at least begun to move along this path.